| Author | Comment | ||
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gagrl |
All in? |
Lead | |
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This happened last night, was I wrong? NL game, everyone folds except seats 2 and 9 (button at 1). Seat 2 bets $15, seat 9 raises to $115. Seat 2 stacks the
rest of his chips (about $130), pushes them in and says "Ok, let's go". Seat 9 says "I call". Seat 9 wins so I push all to him. Seat 2
gets up to leave and seat 4 tells him to wait, he has chips coming back. I called it an all in bet but seat 4 insisted that it wasn't. Seat 2 says that it
was all in and left.
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Psand |
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Apparently the player in seat 4 misunderstood the action. But you and the players involved both knew what the action was so there is no problem. From my
perspective pushing in your last $130 chips when facing a $115 bet has got to be an all-in bet.
One thing you can do to avoid these potential issues (what if seat 2 now claimed he wasn't all in?) is to bring the bets in BEFORE you complete the hand, this way if there is any dispute about what the action was the player would have been on notice to raise the issue before finding out if he won or lost. I would be interested in knowing why the player in 4 thought it was not an all-in bet. |
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sockman522 |
all in?? | ||
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Yeah, i agree.. this seems like a no brainer.
Seat 2 pushed it all in and seat 9 said "call" if that's not an all in situation, then i dont know what is! i also wonder what seat 9 was thinking?? sockman522 |
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gagrl |
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The 4 seat stated that he's a floor man in CA and that he would bet anyone anything that the rule book wouldn't concider that an all in bet. I just
wanted to see if there is some rule that I'm not aware of. Thanks!
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Psand |
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Did he say why it wouldn't be considered an all-in bet?
I am aware of no rule that would require a verbal declaration of all-in in the instance of a player who pushes all his chips out in a single motion (i can think of only one exception would it would not apply in the case described). Is it possible that the player thought there was a string bet involved? (The one exception I refer to would be when you run into the oversized chip rule. Assume that a player bet $75, and a player who only has a single $100 chip then pushes that out with no verbal declaration of a raise or all-in - that would only be a call. But the numbers mentioned by OP would not suggest this could be the case here unless seat 2's $130 in chips was in the form of a $100 chip and a $30 chip and I collect chips and am not aware of too many $30 chips) |
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