Fellow dealer called me up and asked me about an UTH policy that he just learned of. He's dealing and he put trips on the board. A player had $5 on the
trips, blind, and ante. On the river the player didn't feel they had a hand worth playing against the dealer though, so he tucks his cards under the
trips, dealer takes the blind and ante bet. Hand is flipped over, dealer pays the trips. Floor says in that situation the dealer shouldn't expose dead
cards and should just pay the player for the trips that's on the board and then fold the players hand w/o exposing it? I don't understand this at all.
Though my friend went to the pit manager who confirmed what the dealer said. Said the player's cards shouldn't be exposed, just pay them for the
trips on the board. This is a new pit, and I'm not necessarily saying he's wrong, but I think these two have to be somehow misinterpreting a
procedure. Here's the biggest problem I see w/ it:
Lets say flop comes 567 of spades, turn/river comes 8 of spades and a 2 of hearts. Player 1 has pocket 2s (no spade). Decides he doesn't want to play against the dealer and he'll just take his small win on the trips bet. Now what happens? He tucks his cards under the trips, but there's no hand on the board that qualifies for the trips bonus.
Anyway, this just happened last night, so I haven't had a chance to run it by anybody else at work, but tell me your thoughts. I just don't see how this makes sense.
Lets say flop comes 567 of spades, turn/river comes 8 of spades and a 2 of hearts. Player 1 has pocket 2s (no spade). Decides he doesn't want to play against the dealer and he'll just take his small win on the trips bet. Now what happens? He tucks his cards under the trips, but there's no hand on the board that qualifies for the trips bonus.
Anyway, this just happened last night, so I haven't had a chance to run it by anybody else at work, but tell me your thoughts. I just don't see how this makes sense.
